The problem of atheism

Am I perpetuating a myth when I say that atheists cannot establish a basis for morality? I do not believe I am. It’s not that atheists cannot be moral. Of course, they can. But they cannot be good without God, for “morality” is derived from religious belief.
(Note: By “religious belief” I mean any idea that cannot be rationally derived, which is how most atheists define religion.)
As it stands, I have never come across any atheist who could explain a so-called rational, non-religious basis morality. Usually, their replies are moralistic and very religious (an irony which hopefully alludes no one).
I am lately reading Sam Harris’ The End of Faith. As I read, I am constantly asking myself, “Absent God, what is the basis for morality?” Why are the evils he enumerates “evil”? The author constantly declares this or that to be immoral, but why? (The greatest evil, incidentally, is faith.) He is so convinced of his ideas that he actually blames the Jews for the Holocaust, for they, too, perpetuate the evil of having faith. (As I read that section of the book, I became physically ill, and that has only happened once before in my lifetime.) To be sure, Harris does not blame only the Jews for the Holocaust, just everyone who believes in God — and even, strangely, those who do not, but who derive their ideas from those who do. I will soon show that he, too, is guilty of this “crime.”
Establishing a Basis for Morality
What, under atheism, is the basis for morality? What is evil? And what is good? If we accept that there is no God (or god — however you like it), then what constitutes morality? Absent God, humans are merely biological beings, operating by whatever naturally acts upon them. I’m not sure the terms “good” and “evil” even apply. Are not “good” and “evil” philosophical constructs? Absent God, are not these philosophical constructs merely words? What bearing do these values have upon the natural world. Is an earthquake that kills tens of thousands “evil” because it kills tens of thousands of people? Or, is it simply a natural occurrence upon, and the values of “good” or “evil” are irrelevant?
The same reasoning can be applied to the Holocaust. True, millions were exterminated in concentration camps, but, absent God, why should that be termed “evil”? An atheist might respond that people were murdered, to which I will reply that “murder” is a moral construct. Absent God, people were simply killed. Animals kill other animals all the time, and I have never heard it said that one animal murdered another. An atheist might respond that animals kill for food, i.e. they have a reason. Well, the Nazis killed for territory. They, too, had a reason.
C.S. Lewis explains in Mere Christianity that the greatest argument against atheism is the sense of morality we all seem to possess. Lewis arrived at this conclusion while he was an atheist. As an atheist, his argument against God was that so much evil existed in the world. But then he began to wonder where this sense of moral indignation came. Ultimately, he decided that God must exist, because of this sense of right and wrong.
An atheist might say that this doesn’t actually prove God exists. Well, it did for Lewis, and, anyway, that is not my point. My point is, absent God, atheism cannot establish a basis for morality. (I do not even know why they try.)
The Most Obscene Irony
Strangely, arguments for atheism are moralistic and even religious. Generally, their arguments run this way: there is much evil in the world (usually, this is followed by a very detailed account of man’s inhumanity to man); a good part of that evil is conducted in the name of God; faith, then, is the source of evil; and, we are morally obligated, as rational beings, to reject theism (faith). I’m left wondering why a mere biomass is “obligated” to do anything.
I have never found an atheist who answers this question, but neither do I expect them to. In truth, they cannot answer it — certainly not by natural laws. Science does not allow us to ask why something occurs, it simply observes that some thing has occurred (any “why” question really only relates to the mechanisms behind the event). It’s not that atheists do not attempt to answer the question. I have read a number of books and essays written by atheists, and I know that they do. Unfortunately, they never apply the same rules to their arguments as they do to destroying religious arguments. One almost senses an unwillingness to be so utterly impolitic as to simply state that there is no basis for morality. Their responses are generally vague and designed to merely tug upon the heart-strings of the reader, leaving the reader to believe that morality has not been abandoned altogether.
Here are some responses I’ve found on the Internet:
You asked what reason an atheist can give to be moral, so allow me to offer an answer [note: the author is responding to an essay published in the Washington Post]. You correctly pointed out that neither our instincts nor our self-interest can completely suffice, but there is another possibility you’ve overlooked. Call it what you will – empathy, compassion, conscience, lovingkindness – but the deepest and truest expression of that state is the one that wishes everyone else to share in it. A happiness that is predicated on the unhappiness of others – a mentality of “I win, you lose” – is a mean and petty form of happiness, one hardly worthy of the name at all. On the contrary, the highest, purest and most lasting form of happiness is the one which we can only bring about in ourselves by cultivating it in others. The recognition of this truth gives us a fulcrum upon which we can build a consistent, objective theory of human morality. Acts that contribute to the sum total of human happiness in this way are right, while those that have the opposite effect are wrong. A wealth of moral guidelines can be derived from this basic, rational principle. — source: The Basis for an Atheist’s Morality
And…
Morally speaking, it really shouldn’t matter whether any gods exist or not — the happiness and suffering of others should play an important role in our decision making either way. The existence of this or that god could, in theory, also have an impact upon our decisions — it all really depends upon how this “god” is defined. When you get right down to it, though, the existence of a god can’t make it right to cause people suffering or make it wrong to cause people to be more happy. If a person is not a sociopath and is genuinely moral, such that the happiness and suffering of others really matters to them, then neither the presence nor absence of any gods will fundamentally change anything for them in terms of moral decisions. — source: Myth: Atheists Have No Reason to be Moral, No Basis for Morality
Why?
Why should the “happiness and suffering of others” play a role in our decision-making? Why should I care? For that matter, why don’t other biological organisms care about the “happiness and suffering” of other biological organisms? Am I to assume that hyenas, tearing a nearly-born calf from the womb of its mother (look it up on the Internet), are “evil.” After all, the calf and the mother suffered intensely. (Alas, even here I am guilty of moralizing, for I don’t believe the hyenas felt anything except the satiation of their hunger.)
How are we to determine what actions contribute to the “sum total of human happiness”? (What is a “sum total” anyway?) I believe the Nazis would have been very happy if they had been able to annihilate the Jews. Certainly, the Jews would not have been, but might the “sum total” at least come out equal?
Strangely, in the end, atheists resort to the same arguments as the religious. Good is good, and evil is evil. A more rational mind would utterly dismiss these terms. Eventually even, scientists will discover the biochemistry behind all emotions and feelings, further demolishing the notion that morality can be determined absent God, or that it even exists… absent God.
Postscript: I have been asked in the past why I believe atheists can be good. Well, it’s because I believe God exists. Whether one believes in God or not has no bearing. If God exists (here I speak philosophically), and if God is good and just, then morality is universal. But being good, absent God, is relative — atheists do an excellent job explaining how evil man is — so “being good” is, sadly, not much of an achievement.
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© 2012, Mark Adams. All rights reserved. For inquiries press here.




Mark,
You suggest in the title to this post that it is somehow a “problem” for atheism that it fails to provide a basis such as you desire for morality. But why do we need any further basis than just an intuitive sense of what sorts of things qualify in our language for the labels “good” or “evil,” etc.? I don’t see how it helps us to posit that there exists a God whose nature exemplifies some idealistic standard of perfect goodness, or anything along those lines. How does that change the meaning of our moral vocabulary? How does it make moral considerations any more important than they are without God?
It seems to me that regardless of whether or not God exists, we mean just what we mean by our moral terms. And regardless of whether or not God exists, we find the concepts just as important as we do.
Regards,Ben
Ben W
28 May 12 at 8:28 am
Sam Harris speaks of embracing only that which can be “manifestly known” (The End of Faith). He quotes, Christopher Hitchens, writing, “That which can be asserted without evidence, can be dismissed without evidence.” Yet very quickly, he writes about moral authority that is manifestly not known, neither to himself nor anyone else, and offers intuitive sense as evidence of right and wrong. I understand that atheists do not dismiss intuitive sense (Harris devotes a section of his book to the subject), but, in the end, what remains are values that are not “manifestly known.” Should not the same principles applied to the critique religion be applied to atheism? Should not that which is asserted without evidence — a moral authority based on intuitive sense — be dismissed without evidence?
Either way, “intuitive sense” is not a basis for morality — it’s merely a sense of it. I still do not know the basis for morality under atheism.
I am, however, given parameters: that which causes happiness is good and that which causes suffering is evil. That is all very well and good, but how are “happiness” and “suffering” to be measured? Or even defined? No natural explanation, i.e. scientific explanation, is offered, only untested philosophical notions of right and wrong. Quite extraordinarily, Harris employs “that which causes happiness is good, that which causes suffering is evil,” to condemn everyone who is religious, including victims of the Holocaust.
To be honest I expected more. I expected a well-reasoned, scientific explanation of morality. That I did not get from my reading of The End of Faith (or any other literature written by atheists). His book is not even rational. Does Harris really believe that atheism will solve the world’s problems? Does he really believe that only atheism can avert nuclear catastrophe in the MIddle East? Does he really believe that billions of Muslims will one day, very soon, embrace atheism? Is he serious? Does not some sense of self-preservation demand another tack? Is he really “all in” on the ideology of atheism? It’s almost as if he is saying, “Gee, if you only saw things the way I see them, the world would be a better place.”
What astonishes me most, however, is his (and other atheists) sense of indignation, even self-righteousness, particularly as it seems derived from religious thought. For example, I agree that atheists “find the concepts just as important,” but that’s precisely my point: the general movement of atheism derives its goodness from the moral vocabulary of the religious (defined very broadly, as Sam Harris suggests, as anything not firmly rooted in the reality of the physical world). If intuition is a legitimate means for discovering morality, then might it also be for discovering God — or, at least, in believing in Him? Why should there be an end to faith, if in the end we still embrace what is not “manifestly known”?
Mark_Adams
29 May 12 at 1:15 am
Morality is simply pragmatic. What makes people happy? What seems fair? What works for us as individuals and a social group? What promotes the general welfare? I haven’t read Harris’ book, but I seem to recall reading that he believes in an objective morality. I disagree. I believe morality is subjective, which is why it is continually evolving.
Your Bible God is evil in the extreme, ordering the slaughter of entire groups just because they didn’t worship him. He also may or may not be planning to burn all unbelievers in eternal hellfire, depending on your personal interpretation of the Bible. How is eternal punishment for mere belief or disbelief moral?
Again, look at the OT rules for behavior. Many of them are likewise immoral. For example, if you rape a woman, you have to marry her? How is that kind of thing evidence of an absolute moral entity from whom we derive our own morality?
bookjunky
29 May 12 at 9:13 pm
It appears that after dismantling religion, atheists feel compelled to replace faith with something else. Most say they’ve turned to science, things that can be observed, or to rationale thinking. That apparently isn’t the case, however, when it comes to morality. Here, we must rely on our intuitive sense — have not people been doing that for thousands of years?
I do not find it problematic that atheists (and all humanity, for that matter) have different ideas about morality, but I do find it problematic that no one — at least in my general reading — has a scientific, manifestly knowable idea about morality.
If the case against religion is based on rationale thinking, upon scientific thinking, upon that which is manifestly knowable, it should be easy for someone to present that idea. Again, not something based on abstract, philosophical ideas, but a morality based on and bound to hard science. Otherwise, if you do not know what morality is, how do you know that the God of the Old Testament is not just and good?
Mark Adams
29 May 12 at 10:15 pm
@Mark Adams We can define “justice” and “goodness” as it pertains to humans without resorting to a god. Science is a tool for understanding the world. I’m not sure that science has a lot to say about something as subjective and changeable as morality. But others (such as Sam Harris) may argue differently.
How do you defend that god of the OT as good and just? Given your bible-derived morality, explain how the god of the OT is good.
bookjunky
30 May 12 at 12:22 am
@bookjunky My intuitive sense tells me God is good and just, throughout the ages and throughout eternity. I am not alone in intuiting that God is good and just, as such a view is widely held by much of humanity, particularly among Christians. “So we have come to know and to believe the love that God has for us. God is love” (1 John 4:16, ESV). As you ask, “how do you defend the god of the OT as good and just,” I might offer additional scriptural proofs, but I imagine those are not very acceptable to you. Nevertheless, that is how I understand the matter.
As for defending God, One who is absolutely good and just needs no defense (theologically, we start from this premise). However, if we were to offer judgment, upon what basis would we offer it? How can you accuse the God of the OT of being immoral when, by your own definition, morality is subjective? What is the basis for our moral judgment?
Mark Adams
30 May 12 at 11:16 am